Recording conversation - legal req's

[ben]

Does anyone know if recording a conversation in Argentina (in person or over the phone) requires consent of none, one, or both (all) of the parties involved?

 

[French jurist]

You should ask a local lawyer about that.

My 2 cts:
You can record everything you want (for your own use, you only listening to the recording), but the use you might want to make of the recording could be illegal indeed.

It might also depend on what type of content you wish to record (death threat or a simple consumer relation with a provider for instance).

Your question is a bit vague in fact.

 

[ben]

I could be wrong, but I don't think my question was that vague.

In a situation in which a recording was made legally, it can surely be used in any* context; it is only when a recording is illegal that exception could be made depending on context/usage; e.g. death threats.

Most U.S. states, U.S. federal law, Canada and several European countries permit a recording of practically any conversation - real or phone - so long as one party to the conversation knows of the recording. This means if youre talking to someone and want to record the conversation, you can do so without any notification. Several U.S. states insist on all parties being notified. The Wikipedia article lays it out pretty clearly.

Again, I don't know of any use such a recording would be illegal for, so long as it was legally made.

* For the benefit of trolls, let us assume that "any use" refers to any inherently legal use. Using a legally-recorded conversation for blackmail/extortion would not be legal, but this would be on account of the extortion being illegal, not the use of a recording.

* UPDATE: Upon re-reading the Wikipedia entry I linked to, it turns out your distinction based on use, viz. personal vs. third-party disclosure, is correct at least in the U.K.

 

[bebero]

Both parties have to know. That's why, whenever you call a call center, they let you know that they may be doing it.

 

[French jurist]

* For the benefit of trolls, let us assume that "any use" refers to any inherently legal use..

Interesting indeed

 

[ben]

* For the benefit of trolls, let us assume that "any use" refers to any inherently legal use..

Interesting indeed

For the benefit of non-trolls, let it be clear that I was not referring to any current participants in the conversation

Both parties have to know. That's why, whenever you call a call center, they let you know that they may be doing it.

This is partly accurate. Because some jurisdictions (including the FCC in the case of interstate conversations in the US) require it, it's practical to simply institute this practice across the board. It's much easier than to work around legal issues after the fact.

 

[ben]

Anyone would know Argentine law in this regard?

 

[Sequoia1321]

Yes, I’d be interested in this question also.

 

[nikad]

It is not legal for commercial / labor dispute purposes. It is considered legal if a crime victim records the criminal and presents the recording as proof.

Las grabaciones privadas sin consentimiento ante posibles delitos laborales - Legal.com.ar

El derecho a la privacidad existe y una conversación privada que es sometida a grabación clandestina puede ser reclamada ante la justicia por parte de

www.legal.com.ar

 

[Bajo_cero2]

Does anyone know if recording a conversation in Argentina (in person or over the phone) requires consent of none, one, or both (all) of the parties involved?

No requirements.