toongeorges
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expatinowncountry said:Your first graph is per capita Nominal GDP in LEVELS.
Your second graph is Total Nominal GDP in LEVELS.
Krugman graph is an INDEX of Real GDP with base year 2000 = 100. As it is an index, it tries to show growth since 2000 and not overall level as your two graphs show.
IMF data=World Bank data=Krugman data.
The graphs are not the same, but this does not mean you cannot make comparisons.
The first graph says that in 2000, Argentines earned on average more than twice as much as Brazilians, while in 2012 they earn less. Unless the Argentine population has more than doubled in these 12 years (has it?), the Argentina economy cannot have grown faster than the Brazilian one.
The second graph says that the economy of Brazil in 2012 is 3,8 times what it was in 2000, while the economy of Argentina in 2012 is 1,7 times what it was in 2000, so the Argentine economy has not grown faster than the Brazilian one in the period 2000-2012 as Krugman claims.
Maybe Krugman used PPP and not nominal rates, but then that is a choice and I prefer to look at nominal rates.
edit:
indeed, if you look at the PPP rates instead of the nominal rates, the Brazilian economy is only 1,94 times bigger in 2012 as it is in 2000, while the Argentine economy is 2,24 times bigger in 2012 as it is in 2000. The discrepancy between the PPP and nominal evolution implies that the inflation in Brazil must be higher than in Argentina or ... the inflation data is not reliable, which one you think is correct?