People who write he ha hemos has etc without the "h"

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Due to the Quarantine and the lack of other intellectual stimulus we are challenged to question the Real Academia de La Lengua Española..! on this English Language Forum,,?

  1. The letter F was replaced by H (XIII Century) like in Fermosa and Fijo," Moza tan Fermosa como un vaquera de la Finojosa"
  2. The letter H when preceded by a C is not silent it's a letter CH



PD Some may now that C in Latin was pronounced as K , hence comes the Word Kaiser..! just sayin..
 
When Spain joined the EU there was a tremendous turmoil some asked to remove the letter Ñ to simplify keybord uniformity, etc.

But to no avail imagine a speech with Ñ ? Would be misleading

Me importa un cono que se celebre el ano del nino y otras punetas ...!
 
We need the "eñe", the "elle" , and the "ch", as they are totally different sounds. But I can do without accents - been writing without them for years
 
How comes Argentines are using the pretérito perfecto when they are typically using the pretérito indefinido instead?
 
How comes Argentines are using the pretérito perfecto when they are typically using the pretérito indefinido instead?
ne

Asked several people and no one knows what they are?
Yo he amado a muchas - Perfecto
Yo amè a muchas ´- Indefinido

Perfecto has more charisma.
 
When Spain joined the EU there was a tremendous turmoil some asked to remove the letter Ñ to simplify keybord uniformity, etc.

But to no avail imagine a speech with Ñ ? Would be misleading

Me importa un cono que se celebre el ano del nino y otras punetas ...!

Did these people not know about hotkeys? It's very easy to make an ñ on most keyboards (option + n on a mac).

Anyway, without it, how would we distinguish between ano and año? (¿Hola, cuántos anos tienes? Yo tengo ...)
 
How comes Argentines are using the pretérito perfecto when they are typically using the pretérito indefinido instead?
According to Batchelor, E, (2009), A Student Grammar of Spanish, page 47, this phenomenon is consistent "in all Spanish America [where] the perfect tense is used much less frequently than in Iberian Spanish... When you get up in the morning you would say in Spain '?Has dormido bien?'...but in México the question would almost certainly be '?Dormiste bien?'"

To which I would add, a Latin American has an equal right to feel that it is we English speakers (and the Iberian Spanish speakers) who have it the wrong way round.
 
Furthermore, second language learners of Spanish coming from English just love what is being referred to in this thread as the perfecto, (i) because we use its English equivalent so frequently in our native English and (ii) because it is so much more regular and thus easier to learn than what is being referred to in this thread as the indefinido. For that reason, frequent use of the perfecto marks a non-native user of Spanish as coming from English. Much better--at least in the Americas, if Bachelor is correct--to put the perfecto away and do the hard yards learning all those pesky indefinido endings.

Clever comics, trying to create stereotypical non-native characters who struggle with American Spanish in a way that the audience will recognise and chuckle at, throw lots of perfectos into their scripts. The idiolect of the US-born husband of politician Keiko Fujimori in Peru is often parodied in this, and other, ways by his imitator on the radio station RPP.
 
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There was a TED talk -- from TED Buenos Aires of course-- where the speaker argued that the silent H and the V should be dropped. She argued that these are "classist symbols" as poor (and less educated) people are more likely to not know when to use them. Hence, she argued, they need to go.

How about you make sure everyone has access to basic education? Spanish is not even hard to spell as it is. So to that lady I say, check out English or French. Now these are hard to spell.
 
According to Batchelor, E, (2009), A Student Grammar of Spanish, page 47, this phenomenon is consistent "in all Spanish America [where] the perfect tense is used much less frequently than in Iberian Spanish... When you get up in the morning you would say in Spain '?Has dormido bien ?'...but in México the question would almost certainly be '?Dormiste bien?'"

To which I would add, a Latin American has an equal right to feel that it is we English speakers (and the Iberian Spanish speakers) who have it the wrong way round.

¿ Can use opening question marks ? ¿ Durmió bien ?
 
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