prunes61 said:
When an Arg cardholder makes a US$ denominated purchase in NYC, VISA or MasterCard International pays those dollars to the seller/merchant's bank. Then they seek to collect those US$ from the card issuer's bank. VISA and MasterCard will not accept less than the real market wholesale price for the US$, 6.37 pesos. That is what the Arg bank has to pay for each US$ it is billed for. If the Arg bank were then to debit the cardholder's account only 4.60 per US$, it is going to lose lots of money.
This is not how credit card transactions work. Visa and MasterCard international do not pay the merchant's bank for the customer's purchase. The issuing bank (i.e. the one whose name is on the credit card) pays the merchant's bank (also called acquiring bank) for the purchase. Visa and MasterCard (Card Associations) merely serve as a clearinghouse and pass the relevant bills back and forth between the two banks. Visa and MasterCard don't touch purchase payment funds, they only collect fees for their network, authorization and processing services.
This is, incidentally, why they neither Visa nor MasterCard care if you actually pay your credit card bill. That's the issuing bank's problem. Visa and MasterCard only care about the volume of transactions going through their networks.
See this link:
http://www.ippay.com/index.php?q=merchant_processing_overview
The relevant bit is:
1. Merchant deposits the transaction receipt with the Acquirer via settlement batch
2. Captured authorizations are passed from the Front-End Network to the Back-End Network for Settlement
3. The Back-End Network generates ACH files for merchant settlement and sends them to the Acquiring Bank who funds the Merchant Account
4. The Acquiring Bank submits settlement files to the Issuing Banks for reimbursement via the Interchange Network
5. Issuer posts the transaction to the Cardholder account and sends the Cardholder a monthly statement
That's a complicated way of saying 'The Issuing Bank pays the Acquiring Bank, and the Acquiring Bank puts money into the merchant's account for the purchase'
Anyway, the reason this actually matters is the flow goes like this (dramatically simplified to take out all the noise with fees going in different directions and just focus on the funds involved in the purchase):
Purchase made buy customer in US$ -> Issuing bank sends Acquiring bank money in US$ -> Issuing bank bills customer for purchase in card's native currency
The currency conversion only comes into play btw. the issuing bank and the cardholder, though of course the issuing bank needs to either tap its dollar reserves to pay the acquiring bank or source the dollars through the capital or foreign exchange markets.
Now, if the bank bills the customer using an exchange rate of 4.60 pesos per dollar, would they 'lose a lot of money' as you suggest? Not if they have a source of dollars at 4.60 pesos per dollar. That should be the Arg central bank, right? Don't tell me the central bank won't even exchange with other banks at the 'official rate'...
In any case, it seems like this 15% surcharge is going to the gov. and not the issuing bank so the issuing bank will continue to bill the customer at the 4.6 rate, just as they have always done, plus collect a 15% surcharge which will be passed straight through to the government.
prunes61 said:
It is the Arg government that doesn't want to let the peso float free. If it did, it is my understanding that it would have to pay the bondholders 6.37 for each dollar of bond debt. Once the bonds are out of the picture, I believe there will be an official devaluation though not to 6.37. It should be happening soon.
Like the concept above with credit cards, this one is a bit nuanced. Argentine bonds are denominated in dollars, euros or pesos. Period. The government owes the bondholder the value of the bond in the currency it is denominated in, at the time of maturity (along with any interest payments).
If I am holding a 100 USD Argentine bond maturing in 2015 and Argentina devalues the peso to 6.37 pesos per dollar, I really don't care (aside from any credit risk introduced by resulting instability). I'm getting my dollars in 2015 no matter what. Well, we are talking about Argentina so maybe they will just default altogether but they cannot just pay me back in pesos instead. At least they've said they won't do that...
http://en.mercopress.com/2012/06/13...-dollars-and-denies-pesification-of-contracts. The way things are going, really anything could happen at this point.
Now, of course the government has to get these dollars from somewhere, if they don't already have enough to make the payment. Would official devaluation make paying back their dollar-denominated debt more expensive? Yes, but not by 'paying the bondholders 6.37 for each dollar of bond debt'. Rather, post-devaluation they would have to buy the dollars at 6.37 and then pay the dollars to the bondholders. This, as you state, is why they want to avoid devaluation and restrict people's access to dollars. They want to keep what dollar reserves they have.