Again. Read.
In this country the accused can a) remain silent; B ) lie; c) colaborate.
To arrest him to force him to colaborate is coertion and the evidence nullid. His lawyer is Rusconi, one of my mentors, a disciple of Dr. Maier as me. The whole case is nullid and is an expert on that.
Bajo, I appreciate that English is your second language so this may be a strong contributing factor why you avoid answering questions - questions that arise from your confusing posts. I asked you what it was that I wrote previously that is the basis for your assertion that the legal system in the US coerces testimony. You didn't answer. Let me make it clearer for you to see if we can agree.
In the US system, an arrested person (the accused) may invoke his 5th amendment right not to speak when arrested and also not to testify against himself later in a criminal proceeding. I gather from your remarks that the same is true under Arg law. In the US, immediately after a person is arrested, the authorities are required to advise him of his legal right to remain silent (the so called "Miranda" warning of one's 5th amendment rights against self incrimination). If, after being advised of his 5th amendment rights, he chooses to talk then his statements may be used against him in a court of law either as an outright confession or to contradict his court made testimony.
Moreover, if the authorities obtain statements from the arrested without giving him a proper "Miranda" warning, nothing he says can be used against him in a court of law. Accordingly, an accused is not forced to "collaborate' (testify against himself in a criminal proceeding). He can choose not to talk before the trial as well as not to testify during the trial.
p.s.Any witness who lies in a criminal or even civil proceeding after being sworn to tell the truth commits an independent crime (perjury) which can in and of itself be a serious violation of the law (felony).
To arrest someone in the US system means to take him into custody. Thereafter (usually within 24 hours) the accused will be arraigned which means s/he goes before a judge in court to plead innocent or guilty. Assuming an innocent plea, the question of whether bail will be granted or not is addressed. In many cases, even serious ones, if the accused is not a danger to society and not a flight risk, bail may be granted allowing the accused to go free and to then appear later for the trial on his charges. Is the system substantially different in Arg.?
In the De Vido case a warrant was issued for his arrest (after his Congressional colleagues stripped him of immunity) and thereafter De Vido turned himself in. Apparently (I say apparently because I am assuming it to be the case. Advise if otherwise.) the 3 judge panel that issued the arrest warrant deemed he was not eligible to be freed on bail whether it be for flight or other reason under Arg law. Why does this procedure nullify the case against De Vido as you seem to say? If anything, I could understand that the denial of bail was improper under Arg law. Was it? Is there no right of appeal for De Vido on that issue? But a criminal case is not dismissed simply because bail is improperly denied - is that the case in Arg?