Attack On European Central Bank Draghi By Woman Activist

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I think we are confusing the second singular present form with the second singular imperative form. The imperative form is used to give an order, e.g. "¡Vení acá!" (I am ordering Serafina to come here) is different than "Serafina, venís acá que te doy de comer" (I am simply telling her to come here).

So "no me hinche las pelotas!" (I am ordering you to stop busting my balls) but "no me hinches las pelotas, me molesta" (I am just telling you it annoys me)
You are right Serafina, I meant say, don't chop my balls !
 
Actually, we're not confusing anything.

I am fully aware of how to form commands in Spanish. The debate I am having is about the stress, which Matt, if I understood correctly, said is used on negative informal command: No me rompás las bolas -- I have never heard that before. I also asked an Argentine if he has heard that before, and he said he hadn't.

Moving onto the plural affirmative command, in most Latin American countries, the phrase "Háganme un favor" is said with the accent on the first syllable. In Argentina, it's often said with the accent on the last: Haganmé un favor.

I actually got my answer last night when I was watching Victor Hugo Morales being threatened:

2rwxbw4.png


Notice that the person who did the subtitles put the accent at the end: Vayansé -- This, as far as I know, isn't done anywhere else in LATAM, and only occurs in the plural affirmative commands. The plural negative (No vayan) and the singular negative (No vayas) all follow standard rules.
 
So "no me hinche las pelotas!" (I am ordering you to stop busting my balls) but "no me hinches las pelotas, me molesta" (I am just telling you it annoys me)

"No me hinche las pelotas" is the usted form... It's a slight contradiction, as the exp<b></b>ression is vulgar and being used in a formal sense.
 
Wow and holy mackarel! Iam receiving an invaluable lesson in Castellano in here thanks to so many savvy forumites whom are
not Castellano "Native speaker" but very much versed in the idiom..

Iam wondering why hasn't "estebandepraga" yet joined the class in here?
He certainly could be the only reknown "Argentino Criollo" in this forum..
 
Actually, we're not confusing anything.

I am fully aware of how to form commands in Spanish. The debate I am having is about the stress, which Matt, if I understood correctly, said is used on negative informal command: No me rompás las bolas -- I have never heard that before. I also asked an Argentine if he has heard that before, and he said he hadn't.

Thats because neither "no me rompás" nor "no me rompas las bolas" is correct. The correct way to say it is "no me las rompes".
 
Thats because neither "no me rompás" nor "no me rompas las bolas" is correct. The correct way to say it is "no me las rompes".

That is incorrect. The phrase is used typically as a command. "No me rompas las bolas," (Don't bust my balls) and it changes because it's a negative (informal) command.

"Rompes" is the present indicative, and is not used as a command, e.g. "No rompes nada nunca." = You never break anything. (A statement of fact)

No me las rompes. = You don't break mine. (Statement of fact, not command).

http://www.verbix.co...ish/romper.html (See imperativo and indicativo presente)
 
Yep you're 100% right I had a momentary brain fart.

The correct form is indeed "No me rompas las pelotas"
 
Thats because neither "no me rompás" nor "no me rompas las bolas" is correct. The correct way to say it is "no me las rompes".

"¿No me la(s) Rompés ?"

Bravo this is the best contribution.... hahahahahah :cool:
 
Romper and Machacar e Hinchar are pretty good indicative of the meanings. Hurrah to all these Maestros del Castellano Argentino !
 


Serafina callate la boca y no vuelvas a hablar hasta que aprendas a hacerlo con un poco mas de inteligencia

You are a very mean person. You say and do bad things to other beings.
But I believe in karma and in nasty diseases.
 
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