Not sure what you are reading, but it appears that either you aren't reading or aren't comprehending what has been written here. I am not advocating squatting or tresspassing and nothing I have written could possibly be interpreted as such. You seem to be making stuff up to come across as right.
Your earlier posts demonstrated a failure to comprehend the legal meaning of "void" as applied to a contract term. Thereafter, I pointed out that legally it is impossible to reneg on a lease term that is void (i.e to pay dollars as rent). In an effort to save face and to prove yourself right you then argued "the property owner can also say the contract is void because it's technically not a two year lease with a guarantee and simply change the locks." I said you were probably wrong. Now you have changed your statement in a significant way, but I'd be willing to bet you are still wrong.
The first hypo to which I already replied unequivocably implies the tenant has already occupied the property (or else why change locks). This flatly contradicts the latest version of your hypo wherein you now posit that "no rent has been accepted or paid" (ergo no occupancy yet by the tenant). This is a big difference between your two hypos, but even if no rent had been paid and even if the tenant had yet to take possession, I seriously doubt that the landlord could wiggle out of a duly signed and delivered 2 year lease simply because the landlord opted to forego a guarantor in the lease contract because I don't believe the absence of a guarantor makes the lease void.
I would be surprised if a landlord who was willing to forego a guarantor could subsequently treat a duly signed lease as void if he later changed his mind, much less simply lock out his tenant if the tenant has already occupied the apt. I would be willing to bet a lunch that leases are not void if there is no provision for a guarantor. I would be willing to bet a dinner if landlords could lawfully (without judicial process) change locks to evict a tenant already in possession of an apt. I'm not an AR lawyer, but I can assure you if that happened in San Francisco where I was a Legal Aid lawyer specializing in landlord/tenant problems, the landlord would soon find himself on the wrong end of a lawsuit for damages.
I'm not sure why some people here want to rationalize improper conduct by landlords who try to evade the laws that prohibit them from demanding dollars for rent. That improper conduct would require short term tourist visitors and longer term expats to travel with large amounts of cash. That is not safe. That was the concern of the OP of this thread. Hopefully, he and others will not be bullied into paying dollars by unscrupulous landlords having learned contract clauses providing for dollar payments are void. The contract is otherwise valid and a landlord can be made to accept pesos at the legal rate even it it contains such a dollar payment provision.