OK people here goes (sits back and waiting for the outcry)
In the interests of raising the general standard of basic Economics (and what is not economics but just personal finance there is a big difference) and in this thread over discussion over Argentina and Brazil - for those who havnt done this - here are a couple of explanations of the theory of comparative advantage which has been hugely influential since it was first propounded in the mid 19th cent as a core part of the theory of international trade and international politics.
You dont have to agree with it - and there are alternative theories - but it is part of basic economics people for those who arnt already aware but want to know - see Samuelson quote in ref. 2
(and this is not a discussion about whether the Economist is right in describing Samuelson as a "great economist" either)
Im not being condescending but it may help to have some understanding of why for example theories and concepts of "free trade" globally or "regional trade blocs" such as Mercosur have been propounded.
Of course it was also a rationale for firstly the UK and then USA and other mainly European economies who had industrialised early and could get to expand the markets for the consumption of firstly their manufactured products and later to a range of tertiary services. The terms of trade have favoured industrial and then service products for nearly 200 years.
That is until the end of the 20th cent that is when there was a reverse of the situation and the terms of trade has switched to favouring primary producers. As to whether this is a blip or not then opinions differ - as they do on all of this!
See http://www.tutor2u.n...e_advantage.htm
Also http://www.economist...c#node-21529435
I'm sorry Mora but since you had that last boob job I find I cannot take your posturing on economics seriousy... :lol: