Dublin2BuenosAires
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- Feb 21, 2012
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Could someone explain to me the concept of "bribing the poor for votes" ? I've heard this exp<b></b>ression many times, and I just can't understand the logic, except from a standpoint of absolute contempt for democracy. By what reasoning can it be wrong for a politician to promise poor people (or any citizens for that matter) that by voting for him or her, their conditions will improve?
D'Elia - 25 manguetes for the pibes to turn up at a demonstration.
Do you think that stops there?
Criminal gangs loosely associated with football sell everything you need. Drugs, votes, bodies for protests. Pay the money and you get what you need.
Aside from that "loyal" areas will see milk, basic foodstuffs distributed by La Campora, they will directly ask or tell you that this is happening on the basis of who the neighbourhood votes for. The woman who comes round to our house to clean lives in a villa, she's happy to tell me that they all queue up and take what's on offer and listen to the speeches and make whatever promises they need to to get food.
If you didn't vote FpV, the goods aren't flowing into your neighbourhood. That's the problem. It's a reward system based on loyalty.
It goes well beyond targeting your political base with progressive policies, I have no problem with that, as you say that's democracy.
That said, it's laughable to listen to someone from the US gas on about democracy which has been sold to corporations, lobbyists and private interest groups. The KoCks have decided they will spend almost 1bn USD on buying, sorry, influencing the next election. So, to listen to "pensador" chirp on about caudillos and social spending is ludicrous.
Glass houses and that....