For those of you who are fluent..how good or bad is your Castellano accent?

The closest I get to castillano is hochdeutsch. :-]
 
I used to trade English/Spanish with a Spanish teacher friend, an Argentina. She berated me for speaking Castellano, wanting to teach me proper Spanish, but I have no plans to live in Spain, and I enjoy the nuances of Porteño Spanish.

What is very funny to me is when new acquaintances ask my wife if I speak Spanish, when I'm standing right next to her. Of course, I always answer for her, "Porque no pregunta a mi?"
 
I'm fae Glesga....the folk in Edinburgh don't even understand me when I speak English!! :)
Haha! My parents are from Glasgow. (Castlemilk and Easterhouse). Despite being from Los Angeles I had an accent until I was 8. To this day I’m one of a few people from the United States that can understand fluent Glaswegian
 
She berated me for speaking Castellano, wanting to teach me proper Spanish

I wonder where this notion of Argentine Castellano vs. Spain's Spanish comes from?

The Constitution of Spain states that Castellano is official language of Spain.
So it's castellano in Spain.
 
I wonder where this notion of Argentine Castellano vs. Spain's Spanish comes from?

The Constitution of Spain states that Castellano is official language of Spain.
So it's castellano in Spain.

This is a very common confusion/mistake, even amongst Argentines. The truth is, "español" and "castellano" are the same thing: they both refer to the Spanish language and can be used indistinctly. In Spain, as you mentioned, they call their (most widely spread) language "castellano" too.

I believe that the confusion stems from the fact that the word "castellano" has the "ll" sound, so many generations ago speakers of the Rioplatense dialect started saying "yo hablo casteshano" instead of "yo hablo español" just to emphasize the "ll" sound. Fast-forward to today, and many, many Argentines still think that "castellano" refers to the Rioplatense dialect (versus "español" which following this incorreect logic refers to Spanish spoken elsewhere). It obviously doesn't, since the name itself clearly states it refers to the language of Castilla, i.e. Spanish.

It's basically the same thing that happens in most languages with regard to Dutch, which in Spanish for example can be either holandés or neerlandés, but both terms refer to the same language. "Holandés," like "castellano," is used pars pro toto. However, the politically correct name for the former is "neerlandés" whereas the current politically correct name for the latter is "castellano," especially in Spain (since there are other "Spanish languages," i.e. languages which are official in the Kingdom of Spain, Castilian being just one of them: Catalan/Valencian, Basque, and Galician being the others). Either way, "castellano" and "español" both refer to the same thing, i.e. the language as a whole and not a specific dialect (each dialect has their own official name, such as "español/castellano rioplatense").

TL;DR: español = castellano.
 
I wonder where this notion of Argentine Castellano vs. Spain's Spanish comes from?

The Constitution of Spain states that Castellano is official language of Spain.
So it's castellano in Spain.

Yes, we know that - thank you. Was referring to Castellano as Argentine simply for for the sake of brevity. So much for that idea.
 
This is a very common confusion/mistake, even amongst Argentines. The truth is, "español" and "castellano" are the same thing: they both refer to the Spanish language and can be used indistinctly. In Spain, as you mentioned, they call their (most widely spread) language "castellano" too.

I believe that the confusion stems from the fact that the word "castellano" has the "ll" sound, so many generations ago speakers of the Rioplatense dialect started saying "yo hablo casteshano" instead of "yo hablo español" just to emphasize the "ll" sound. Fast-forward to today, and many, many Argentines still think that "castellano" refers to the Rioplatense dialect (versus "español" which following this incorreect logic refers to Spanish spoken elsewhere). It obviously doesn't, since the name itself clearly states it refers to the language of Castilla, i.e. Spanish.

It's basically the same thing that happens in most languages with regard to Dutch, which in Spanish for example can be either holandés or neerlandés, but both terms refer to the same language. "Holandés," like "castellano," is used pars pro toto. However, the politically correct name for the former is "neerlandés" whereas the current politically correct name for the latter is "castellano," especially in Spain (since there are other "Spanish languages," i.e. languages which are official in the Kingdom of Spain, Castilian being just one of them: Catalan/Valencian, Basque, and Galician being the others). Either way, "castellano" and "español" both refer to the same thing, i.e. the language as a whole and not a specific dialect (each dialect has their own official name, such as "español/castellano rioplatense").

TL;DR: español = castellano.

That's a good explanation. UBA's language department used to offer a class called "español rioplatense para hispanohablantes" or something like that.
 
That's a good explanation. UBA's language department used to offer a class called "español rioplatense para hispanohablantes" or something like that.

Perhaps you know about a class on DialectoTumbero Argentino...?
 
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